Ps 22:1 for Jan 26

Ps 22:1, "... Why has Thou forsaken Me" sounds so much more proper than "why have you forsaken me?", but in this case, is the "proper" improper, and isn't the improper, really proper?

In all forsakings, the closer the relationship, the worse the forsaking.

1) Does it at least make us squirm that some "otherwise very smart people" think that a Creator not only tolerated a religion that sacrificed innocent animals, but required it specifically, at one time, the sacrifice of animals "without defect" (Lv 5:18)? The forsaking -- putting to death -- of these animals should very much make us squirm, and lament the "unfairness" of such a stipulation by the Creator of those animals and the galaxies. They say He stipulated it, and participated in it, and it made them shout (Lv 9:24).

C.S. Lewis has the temerity to call this kind of use of sacrifice a "deeper magic from before the dawn of time," before the galaxies, God having a plan involving an even deeper "unfairness" than that to animals: Paul says "He made Him who knew no sin to be sin on our behalf, so that we might become the righteousness of God in Him" (2 Cor 5:21). And this, no less than the participation by God in Lv 9:24, is not just ledger-logic, an "I'll take it as if you were on this side of the ledger, and Christ on the other side" -- but, the logic of reality: Christ was made sin, so that we might become the righteousness of God.

2) When the Lord "cried out with a loud voice" this verse (Ps 22:1) in Mt 27:46 and Mk 15:34, He was about to die. He was innocent. He did not deserve death. Who forsook Christ on the cross? Was Christ mistaken in believing so? He did not ask God if He would, but why He did. Some "otherwise very smart people" think this actually was what happened. A perfect Creator forsook His perfect Son, for the reason that Paul gives as if in answer to Ps 22:1.